From what I read in the preliminary version of a chapter of the book “Lectures on Scheduling”
edited by R.H. M¨ohring, C.N. Potts, A.S. Schulz, G.J. Woeginger, L.A. Wolsey, to appear around 2011 A.D.
This is the PTAS Definition:
A polynomial time approximation scheme (PTAS) for problem $X$ is an approximation scheme whose time complexity is polynomial in the input size.
and FPTAS definition
A fully polynomial time approximation scheme (FPTAS) for problem $X$ is an approximation scheme whose time complexity is polynomial in the input size and also polynomial in 1/$\epsilon$.
Then the writer says:
Hence, for a PTAS it would be acceptable to have a time complexity proportional to $|I|^{1/\epsilon}$ where $|I|$ is the input size;although this time complexity is exponential in $1/\epsilon$. An FPTAS cannot have a time complexity that grows exponentially in $1/\epsilon$ but a time complexity proportional to $|I|^8/\epsilon^3$ would be fine. With respect to worst case approximation, an FPTAS is the strongest possible result that we can derive for an NP-hard problem.
Then he suggested the following figure to illustrates the relationships between the classes of problems:
Here is my questions:
From the PTAS and the FPTAS definition, how does the writer conclude that the FPTAS cannot have a time complexity that grows exponentially in $1/\epsilon$? and what difference does it make if it can have such time complexity?
A time complexity like $(n+1/\epsilon)^3$ is acceptable for FPTAS but it is not for PTAS, then why FPTAS is considered to be a subset of PTAS?
What does he mean by: an FPTAS is the strongest possible result that we can derive for an NP-hard problem.
In the aggregate I would like to know what exactly these to concepts mean and, what are their distinct properties.
Thanks in advance.