The Max-Cut optimization problem on a graph $G=(V,E)$ can be written as the question of wanting to maximize the function $\frac{1}{4} \sum_{(i,j) \in E } (x_i -x_j)^2$ under the constraint $x_i^2 = 1, x_i \in \mathbb{R}, \forall i \in V$.
Now the usual SDP relaxation is to lift the $x_i$s to vectors $\vec{x_i} \in \mathbb{R}^d$ for some $d$ with the new objective function to be maximized being $\frac{1}{4} \sum_{(i,j) \in E } \vert \vert \vec{x_i} - \vec{x_j} \vert\vert _2 ^2$ under the new constraint being $\vert \vert \vec{x_i} \vert \vert _2 ^2 = 1$.
- I wonder why in the usual SDP relaxation we use the $l_2$ norm. Is that just convenience or is there some optimality argument about it? Like one could have as well for any $4$ integers $p,q,r,s$ thought of,
maximizing $\sum_{(i,j) \in E } \vert \vert \vec{x_i} - \vec{x_j} \vert\vert _p ^q$ under the constraint being $\vert \vert \vec{x_i} \vert \vert _r ^s = 1$.
I believe this optimization problem would still give the max-cut?
Beyond the fact that such an optimization would probably be very hard to do, is there any fundamental reason why we do not do such a formulation of optimizing the $q^{th}$ power of the $p-norm$ under a constraint fixing the $s^{th}$-power of the $r-norm$?
- (will there emerge constraints on the integers $p,q,r,s$ for this to work?)
For example,
Even before the relaxation one could have as well written the optimization question as wanting to optimize $\frac{1}{16} \sum_{(i,j) \in E } (x_i -x_j)^4$ under the constraint $x_i^2 = 1, x_i \in \mathbb{R}, \forall i \in V$. I believe this would still give the same max-cut!
And then one might have thought of its "natural" SDP relaxation to be,
maximizing $\frac{1}{16} \sum_{(i,j) \in E } \vert \vert \vec{x_i} - \vec{x_j} \vert\vert _4 ^4$ under the constraint being $\vert \vert \vec{x_i} \vert \vert _2 ^2 = 1$.
- Do we know that say the above SDP won't beat the $0.878$ factor?