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If I have the following statements:

For Idempotent:

Since X * X = X, would that imply that ~X * ~X = ~X

For Dominance:

Since X + 1 = 1 would that imply that ~X + 1 = 1

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closed as unclear what you're asking by jmite, David Richerby, Luke Mathieson, Gilles♦ Mar 11 '16 at 21:20

Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

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    $\begingroup$ You can easily check your statements using for example the method of truth tables. $\endgroup$ – Anton Trunov Mar 9 '16 at 19:42
  • $\begingroup$ Would this work also when simplifying any expression using Boolean theorems, in that case is truth? $\endgroup$ – user3395308 Mar 9 '16 at 19:52
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The principle of substitution states that if $\varphi$ is a valid (fully parenthesized) formula in variables $x_1,\ldots,x_n$ and $e_1,\ldots,e_n$ are arbitrary expressions, then if we substitute $e_i$ for $x_i$ in $\varphi$ (you have to substitute all occurrences of $x_i$ by $e_i$) we still get a valid formula. You can apply this principle to your examples.

Perhaps the principle will become easier to understand if we take an example from algebra. Consider the identity $(x+y)(x-y) = x^2-y^2$. If we substitute $2a$ for $x$ and $1+a$ for $y$ then we get $((2a)+(1+a))((2a)-(1+a)) = (2a)^2-(1+a)^2$, which is still valid. The same happens in your case.

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