I'm reading a Basics of Compiler Design and on page 84 it is making the following statement:
A language may well be LL(1) even though the grammar used to describe it is not.
Can someone give such an example? I'm not really sure how this is possible. I thought grammars generate languages, therefore if a grammar is non LL(1) then a language generated by it is also non LL(1). Apparently that is not the case.
Any help is appreciated.