I was reading hashing from CLRS. In it author says:
Let $\mathscr{H}$ be a finite collection of hash functions that map a given universe $U$ of keys into the range ${0,1,...,m-1}$. Such a collection is said to be universal if for each pair of distinct keys $k,l\in U$, the number of hash functions $h\in\mathscr{H}$ for which $h(k)= h(l)$ is at most $|\mathscr{H}|/m$.
So basically in universal set of hash functions, the number of hash functions a finite collection of hash functions is said to be universal if number of hash functions $h$ for which $h(k)=h(l)$ is at most $\frac{\text{number of hash functions}}{\text{size of hash table}}=\frac{|\mathscr{H}|}{m}$
However next the author says:
In other words, with a hash function randomly chosen from $\mathscr{H}$, the chance of a collision between distinct keys $k$ and $l$ is no more than the chance $1/m$ of a collision if $h(k)$ and $h(l)$ were randomly and independently chosen from the set $\{0,1,...,m-1\}$.
I didnt get the last part "$h(k)$ and $h(l)$ were randomly and independently chosen from the set $\{0,1,...,m-1\}$". How $|\mathscr{H}|=$[$h(k)$ and $h(l)$ were randomly and independently chosen from the set $\{0,1,...,m-1\}$]