Proving that PP is closed under symmetric difference

I want to prove that PP is under symmertic difference. let A be a language in PP and B likewise. I tried showing that : (A\B) U (B\A) in PP , so by show each in PP and then showing that it's closed under union , I should be done. How do I show A\B in PP? Am I on the right track? Maybe there is an easier way?

There are several different definitions of $\mathsf{PP}$. I'll take this one: the class of languages $L$ such that there exists a probabilistic polytime Turing machine $T$ satisfying $$L = \{x : \Pr[T(x)=1] > 1/2\}.$$ Let me stress that the Turing machine is only allowed to toss unbiased coins.
The first step is to show that for every language $L \in \mathsf{PP}$ there exists a probabilistic polytime Turing machine $S$ such that $$L = \{ x : \Pr[S(x)=1] > 1/2 \}, \\ \overline{L} = \{ x : \Pr[S(x)=1] < 1/2 \}.$$ In other words, $\Pr[S(x)=1] \neq 1/2$ for all $x$. To show this, take the machine $T$ promised above, and suppose that on inputs of length $n$ it runs in time $p(n)$. Thus if $\Pr[T(x)=1] > 1/2$ then $\Pr[T(x)=1] \geq 1/2 + 1/2^{p(n)}$. The new machine will output $T(x) \land B$, where $B$ is a random variable satisfying $\Pr[B=0] = 1/2^{p(n)}$ (we can realize such a variable $B$ in polytime). We have $$\Pr[S(x)=1] = \left(1 - \frac{1}{2^{p(n)}}\right) \Pr[T(x)=1].$$ If $x \in L$ then $$\Pr[S(x) = 1] \geq \left(1 - \frac{1}{2^{p(n)}}\right) \left(\frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2^{p(n)}}\right) = \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{2^{p(n)+1}} - \frac{1}{2^{2p(n)}} > 1/2.$$ In contrast, if $x \notin L$ then clearly $\Pr[S(x) = 1] < \Pr[T(x)=1] \leq 1/2$.
Armed with this result, let now $A,B \in \mathsf{PP}$, with associated machines $S_A,S_B$, both satisfying the promise above. Our new machine $S$ will output $S_A(x) \oplus S_B(x)$. Using $p_A(x),p_B(x),p(x)$ to denote the probabilities that the machines $S_A,S_B,S$ (respectively) output $1$ on $x$, we have $$p(x) = p_A(x) (1-p_B(x)) + p_B(x) (1-p_A(x)) = p_A(x) + p_B(x) - 2p_A(x) p_B(x).$$
We now have to consider three cases. Suppose first that $x \in A \Delta B$, say $x \in A$ and $x \notin B$. Then $p_A(x) > 1/2$ and $p_B(x) < 1/2$, and so $$p(x) = p_A(x) (1-2p_B(x)) + p_B(x) > \frac{1}{2} (1-2p_B(x)) + p_B(x) = \frac{1}{2}.$$ A similar calculation works when $x \notin A$ and $x \in B$. So if $x \in A \Delta B$, we have $p(x) > 1/2$.
Suppose next that $x \in A \cap B$. Then $p_A(x),p_B(x) > 1/2$, and so $$p(x) = p_B(x) - p_A(x) (2p_B(x) - 1) < p_B(x) - \frac{1}{2} (2p_B(x) - 1) = \frac{1}{2}.$$ Similarly, if $x \notin A \cup B$ then $p_A(x),p_B(x) < 1/2$ and so $$p(x) = p_A(x) (1 - 2p_B(x)) + p_B(x) < \frac{1}{2} (1 - 2p_B(x)) + p_B(x) = \frac{1}{2}.$$ We conclude that if $x \notin A \Delta B$ then $p(x) < 1/2$.