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I've stumbled upon this Question:

  • We say that a reduction $f$ of a language $A$ to a language $B$ is a Shorten length reduction, if there exists a number $ n\in N $ s.t for every $ w\in A $, s.t if $ |w| \geq n \ than \ |f(w)| < |w| $. Also, $A,B \notin \{\Sigma^*,\emptyset \} $. Prove there is such a reduction which is also polynomial-time reduction from any languages $ A,B \in P $.
  • This was my approach: Take $ w' $ to be the shortest word in $B$ and define $f(w) = w'$ for every $w \in A $. I'm pretty sure the idea is correct because we simply choose $n = |w'| + 1$ and then obviously for every $w \ s.t \ |w| >= n \ we \ get \ |w| > n-1 = |w'| = |f(w)| $

So my question is, can I really choose a word $ w' $ to be the shortest word in $B$?

Also, am I correct with my approach?

Thanks!

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In order to prove your result, you don't need to give an algorithm that gets a description of $A$ and $B$ and outputs a description of $f$, a polytime shortening reduction from $A$ to $B$. It's enough to show that for each $A$ and $B$, such an $f$ exists. If a language $B$ is different from $\emptyset$ and $\Sigma^*$ then there is some word $x \in B$ and some other word $y \notin B$, and these are enough to carry out your construction (you don't actually need them to be the shortest word).

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