I asked this question here on stackoverflow, but maybe because of off-topic over there, it didn't received proper response.

Does user level threads take advantage of multiprocessing ? I read one such answer here. But, it's not clear though.


And one other answer here says that it is possible


Am I missing something here with some important details ?

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    $\begingroup$ This seems implementation-dependent, so I'm not sure it's on-topic here. $\endgroup$ – Yuval Filmus Jan 14 '17 at 11:57
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    $\begingroup$ The second link gives a decent answer. $\endgroup$ – gnasher729 Jan 14 '17 at 12:03
  • $\begingroup$ @gnasher729 so is it true ? I mean what do you infer from this? I've searched google though, all of them say it cannot. Then, I can' t decode anything from 2nd link here . $\endgroup$ – Barry Jan 14 '17 at 13:49
  • $\begingroup$ @gnasher729 What I've inferred is that it's all implementation dependent working on 1:1 machines. $\endgroup$ – Barry Jan 14 '17 at 13:55
  • $\begingroup$ What are you confused about? It all seems perfectly clear to me so I'm having a hard time guessing which part you're finding unclear. If you use only user-level threads, then the answer is no. if you use a combination of user-level threads and kernel-level threads, then the answer is yes... as explained in those answers. I'm not sure what the question is. Do you understand how user-level threads and kernel-level threads work? Maybe what would help you would be to spend some more time reading about them and how they work? $\endgroup$ – D.W. Jan 14 '17 at 17:07

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