A language $L$ is deterministic context-free if and only if there is a deterministic push-down automaton M such that $L = L(M)$.
According to the answer key of this quiz, the above statement is false. Which is odd to me, if a context free language is one that can be defined by a pushdown automata, would a deterministic context free language not also be defined by a deterministic pushdown automata? Perhaps it's the "if and only if" that is at issue here.
I'm also referencing information from this post Are there inherently ambiguous and deterministic context-free languages?, which does imply that the above statement should be true.