if H is Pac learnable according to
Definition 3.1 (PAC Learnability) A hypothesis class H is PAC learnable if there exist a function $m_H\colon(0,1)^2 \mapsto N$ and a learning algorithm with the following property: For every $\varepsilon, \delta \in (0,1)$, for every distribution $D$ over $X$, and for every labeling function $f \colon X \mapsto \{0,1\}$, if the realizability assumption holds with respect to $H,D,f$, then when running the learning algorithm on $m \geq m_H(\varepsilon, \delta)$ i.i.d. samples generated by $D$ and labeled by $f$, the algorithm returns a hypothesis $h$ such that, with probability of at least $1 - \delta$ (over the choice of the examples), $$L_{(D,f)}(h) \leq \varepsilon.$$
and the algorithm returns h* (for specific S of size $m_H(\varepsilon, \delta$) and distribution D) , I can define a distribution D' that gives 0 for each x s.t. h*(x)=f(x) and that will give me $L_{D'}(h*)=1$. I am trying to understand why this is ok (not a contradiction for H being PAC), so I have 2 questions on this: $$$$ 1. my guess is that since the algorithm does not depend on the distribution but does on S (that depends on it), we will probably get with the new distribution D' a different S that will return a different h that keeps us with $L_{(D',f)}(h) \leq \varepsilon.$ with probability $1 - \delta$. Is this the right explanation? $$$$ 2. After defining the new distribution D' is it right to say that (D',f,H) still hold the realizability assumption? I don't see why not but want to be sure.
definition 2.1 (The Realizability Assumption) There exists $h* \in H$ s.t. $L_{(D,f)}(h*) = 0.$. Note that this assumption implies that with probability 1 over random samples, S, where the instances of S are sampled according to D and are labeled by f, we have $L_S(h*) = 0$.
Thank you