I tried some examples and found that LL(1) grammar always exist.
I tried searching for formal proof but didn't find any.
Can someone give a formal proof for the above statement?
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4$\begingroup$ Have you tried proving it yourself? You need to construct a grammar from a deterministic finite automaton. $\endgroup$ – adrianN Oct 6 '17 at 15:51
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$\begingroup$ Use the characterisation with FIRST and FOLLOW sets. $\endgroup$ – Raphael♦ Oct 6 '17 at 23:11
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$\begingroup$ Express the corresponding DFA as a grammar. Each state becomes a non-terminal. The transitions from a state become a production. Terminal states disjoin the empty state. $\endgroup$ – Thumbnail Oct 7 '17 at 10:24
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$\begingroup$ Use a left-regular or a right-regular grammar. $\endgroup$ – Yuval Filmus Oct 7 '17 at 10:32
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