My proof was deemed false because it does not work for infinite regular languages, but I don't understand why.
Prove: "If we remove one string from any nonempty regular set, the resulting set is still regular.
I used to lemmas:
- A set containing only one string is trivially a regular language
- The union operator is closed in the class of regular languages
Given these two lemmas, I made the claim that any regular language $L$ can be written in the form $$L = \bigcup_{e \in L}\{e\}$$
Then, one picks an arbitrary string $r \in L$ to remove, and expresses $L$ in the same manner with $r$ distinct: $$L = \bigcup_{e \in (L - \{r\})}\{e\} \cup \{r\}, \quad r \in L$$
Finally, we simply remove $r$ from the union and obtain: $$L' = \bigcup_{e \in (L - \{r\})}\{e\}$$
$L'$ is also regular by the two lemmas introduced earlier.