Regardless of the algorithm you use, if you have $i$ bits of random data, you can generate a maximum of $2^i$ possible permutations. If $i$ is smaller than $log_2(n!)$, then there will be some permutations which cannot be produced, and you will have, in effect, decided which permutations those are when you encode your algorithm. (You may not be able to predict which permutations they are, but you have nonetheless determined that fact.) [1]
$log_2{52!}$ is about 225.6, so with a single 64-bit random number, you can only generate one out of every 4372488437452686306097090522819848184377442426979 permutations. With four 64-bit random numbers, you'd have no trouble generating all of them. $log_2{64!}$ is just under 296, so it would require five 64-bit numbers.
Since your permutation-generator is deterministic, you cannot invent more possibilities by manipulating the algorithm. The best you can do is to ensure that it is a homomorphism; that every random number is mapped onto a different permutation. Beyond that, you could investigate whether the one-in-4372488437452686306097090522819848184377442426979 sample of the universe of permutations exhibits any biases. For example, is each individual permutation position in the same evenly distributed? Is there a correlation between two (or more) positions? I sincerely doubt that trying to emulate a physical shuffle will improve these statistics more than the simple mathematical approach outlined below.
As xkcd reminds us, there is no such thing as an intrinsically random value. The only meaningful question we can answer is whether a sequence of pseudorandomly generated values is "random-like".
So let's first figure out how to transform the $i$ bits of randomness into $2^i$ distinct permutations. The following generic procedure should work:
Predefine some function $f$ which maps $[0, 2^i)$ onto $[0, n!)$.
For each permutation, given a random number $x$, compute ${q_0,...,q_{n-1}}$ and
${r_0,...,r_{n-1}}$ as follows:
Perform a Fisher-Yates shuffle using ${r_0,...,r_{n-1}}$ as the "random numbers".
(Aside from expanding the initial seed into the range $[0,n!)$, this is precisely the solution proposed by Yuval, just written out in more detail.)
Then you could start to measure the "randomness" of a proposed function $f$ by measuring the distribution of the values of each $r_i$ over the range of $f$. The next step might be to look at the distribution of $<r_i, r_j>$ for each pair $0 <= i < j < n$
One really simple definition of $f$ is:
$$f(x)=\lfloor x * {n!\over2^i} \rfloor$$
Assuming you calculate this with precise rational arithmetic, this gives a surprisingly reasonable set of individual $r_i$ distributions for a 52-shuffle given a 64-bit random number. [2] You'll have to decide whether that's good enough for you. If it turns out to not be, there are other possible transformations which might do better. Another simple one would be replacing the above with:
$$f(x)=\lfloor x * {n!\over2^i} \rfloor + p \mod n!$$
where $p$ is some large prime.
[1] This information-theoretic argument is based on the permutation-generation algorithm being stateless. If each random number is in some way combined with all previously generated random numbers without losing (too much) information, then the universe of possible permutations could be much larger. (This condition is not satisfied by simply combining the two random numbers with some arithmetic or bitwise operation whose value has the same number of bits as each of the arguments.) I think that's a reasonable assumption because the original question was cast in the context of a client-server architecture; in such systems maintaining co-ordinated state between the disconnect components is generally more complicated than exchanging a few more bits in each transaction.
[2] I didn't do much more than look at some histograms and a couple of correlations and a chi-square or two, but it was all really simple python, so I'm sure you could reproduce my limited research in a few minutes.