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This question already has an answer here:

If I have production $G_n$

$S \rightarrow A_i b_i \quad$ for $1 \le i \le n$

$A_i \rightarrow a_j A_i \mid a_j\quad$ for $1 \le i$ and $i \ne j$

  1. Prove $G_n$ is sub-productions from $2n^2 - n$
  2. Prove $G_n$ is $LR(0)$ production from $2^n + n^2 + n$
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marked as duplicate by Raphael Apr 14 '13 at 19:11

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migrated from math.stackexchange.com Jan 28 '13 at 0:41

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  • $\begingroup$ Welcome to MSe! It really help readability if you pose your questions using MathJax. I updated your question, but please verify I got it correct. Also, it helps the MSE Community know where you are having issues if you tell us what you have tried and where you are confused/stuck. Regards $\endgroup$ – Amzoti Jan 27 '13 at 17:16
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    $\begingroup$ I understand what the productions of $G_n$ are, but what do you mean by ‘sub-productions from $2n^2-n$’ and ‘$LR(0)$ production from $2^n+n^2+n$’? $G_n$ has $n$ productions of the first type and $n^2-n$ of the second type, so it has $2n^2-n$ productions altogether; if that’s what the first question asks you to prove, it does not require induction. $\endgroup$ – Brian M. Scott Jan 27 '13 at 21:27
  • $\begingroup$ First Request: i used math induction to prove, but i don't know if this way is true. Second: i don't know how prove $\endgroup$ – M.B Jan 28 '13 at 15:20
  • $\begingroup$ I don't quite understand the phrasing of the question. Assuming it concerns a proof that the given grammar(s) generate(s) some language(s), I'm closing as a duplicate of the (new) reference question. $\endgroup$ – Raphael Apr 14 '13 at 19:11