I'm working on an exercise that involves checking if the Rice's theorem can be applied on a two languages.
The first language is $E_{TM} = \{ \langle M \rangle \text{ | M is a Turing Machine and } L(M) = \emptyset \} $.
I already know it's undecidable, thus Rice's theorem should apply without any problem and in fact it checks the three theorem's requisite just fine.
The second language is $X = \{\langle M \rangle \text{ | M is a Turing Machine that does not halts on any input string \}}$.
To me, the fact that the TM does not halts on any string means that the language is empty, which means that X is similar if not equal to $E_{TM}$.
But the property stated in X is not on the language of the TM, but rather describes what it does on all possible strings.
Is this reasoning correct?
Thanks for your help.