I got a question regarding the decidability of equivalence of two context free grammars:

Construct a Turing machine that decides whether $L(G) = L(H)$, where $G$ and $H$ are two context free grammars.

This question is taken from Sipser's book on theory of computation.

My current idea is given that $G$ and $H$ are CFG's, we know that there exists push down automata that accept the languages described by $G$ and $H$. We can simulate a PDA on a Turing machine and hence, we can convert the problem to the equality of Turing machines, such that $M_1$ and $M_2$ are TMs and $L(M_1) = L(M_2)$ which is known to be undecidable.

My question is, are these steps fine to do (with a bit more formalism)?


Let me prove that the problem of determining whether $x = 0$ is undecidable.

Let $A$ be a Turing machine that accepts only $x$, and let $B$ be a Turing machine that accepts only $0$. Then $x = 0$ iff $L(A) = L(B)$, so according to your argument, determining whether $x = 0$ should be undecidable.

I hope that this example helps you understand why your reasoning doesn't work. Instead, try to to use the fact that CFG universality (given a grammar $G$ over $\Sigma$, does $L(G)$ equal $\Sigma^*$?) is undecidable.

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  • $\begingroup$ I attempted to use the CFG universality as you suggested. This means i assumed that TM $R$ decides the Equality problem of CFG's and then showed that this would result in a TM $S$ which can then solve the CFG universality problem. TM $S$ behaves on input $G_1$ and $G_2$: 1: Simulate R on ($G_1$, $G_3$) where $G_3 = \Sigma^{*}$ 2: If $R$ accepts, accept; otherwise reject Now, i believe that this would solve the CFG universality problem, which is undecidable, and hence TM $R$ can not exist. Is this correct ? $\endgroup$ – user507237 Oct 14 '18 at 10:08
  • $\begingroup$ This is the idea, though $\Sigma^*$ is not a grammar. $\endgroup$ – Yuval Filmus Oct 14 '18 at 14:48

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