# Intuition why NP $\subsetneq$ EXPTIME would hold?

We know that P $$\subsetneq$$ EXPTIME, and that P $$\subseteq$$ NP $$\subseteq$$ EXPTIME.

I hear alot about the P = NP question and why it would intuitively be weird if it holds true, but I don't hear about the intuition behind why people think that NP $$\subsetneq$$ EXPTIME.

Are there intuitive reasons to assume that NP = EXPTIME or not? Why would we think one way or the other?

• @YuvalFilmus, clearly you haven't read one of these questions. – user600670 Oct 29 '18 at 19:21
• I think the answer to the old question also fits this question. – Yuval Filmus Oct 29 '18 at 19:51
• If you disagree, you can vote to reopen your question. – Yuval Filmus Oct 30 '18 at 4:46