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Your question is not quite clear, but I believe you are asking how to show that 1in3SAT is NP-complete via a reduction from the known NP-complete problem 3SAT. If this is your question, then consider the following set up, using your notation: Let an instance of 3SAT be defined by a set of $n$, Boolean variables $V = \{x_1, ..., x_n\}$ and a Boolean equation ...

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