Consider an MDP defined as the tuple $\langle S,A,R,P,\mu,\lambda\rangle$ where $S$ is the state space, $A$ the action space, $R:S\times A\times S\to\mathbb{R}$ the reward function, $P$ the transition probabilities, $\mu$ the initial state distribution, and $\lambda$ is the discount factor.
Let the decision horizon be finite. The expected discounted return under a given policy $\pi = (\pi_1,\ldots,\pi_{T-1})$, where each $\pi_t:S\to A$, is defined as \begin{align*} F(\pi,\mu) = E_{\pi,\mu}\big[\sum_{t=1}^{T-1}\lambda^tR(s_t,a_t,s_{t+1}) + \lambda^TR(s_{T-1},s_T)\mid s_1\sim \mu\big] \end{align*} where $a_t = \pi_t(s_t)$ and the expectation is taken with respect to the probability distribution on the states induced by the initial state distribution $\mu$ and the policy $\pi$. An optimal policy is defined as $\pi^*\in\arg \max_\pi F(\pi,\mu)$.
It seems to me that the math says that since we are only maximizing over $\pi$, there is still a residual dependence of the optimal policy on $\mu$, i.e., mathematically it should be written: $\pi_{\mu}^*\in\arg \max_\pi F(\pi,\mu)$.
Question: Are optimal policies in MDPs dependent upon the initial state distribution? If not, what conditions allow us to rule out this dependence?