What have you tried?
So I watched this video. According to the video, we've to calculate the variance $\sigma^2$ as follows: $$ \sigma_{k}^{2} = \frac { p_{1} \left(x_{1} - \mu_{k_1}\right)^{2} + \ldots + p_{n} \left(x_{n} - \mu_{k_n}\right)^{2} } { p_{1} + p_{2} + \ldots + p_{n} } $$
Where
- $k$ is the index of the current Gaussian class.
- $p$ represents the possibility of one point of the set
- $n$ is the amount of points in the set
So what's your question?
I don't understand, why we have to use $\mu_{1}$, $\mu_{2}$, $\ldots$, $\mu_{n}$. I expected to calculate it follows: $$ \sigma_{k}^{2} = \frac { p_{1} \left(x_{1} - \mu_k\right)^{2} + \ldots + p_{n} \left(x_{n} - \mu_k\right)^{2} } { p_{1} + p_{2} + \ldots + p_{n} } $$
Because why do I have to use the "current-calculated" mean of the Gaussian and not the "final" one?
1
in the first mean is a mistake or does he mean a different typo? $\endgroup$