Wikipedia and other sources define "asymptotically equivalent" as: two functions $f$ and $g$ are asymptotically equivalent if:
$$ \lim\limits_{x \to\infty}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=1 $$
But we regard $n^2$ and $2n^2$ as asymptotically equivalent, and these always have a ratio of 2 between them. Is there a different definition of "asymptotically equivalent" that I should be using?
This MIT Problem Session from 2020 illustrates calling $n^3$ and $\binom{n}{3}=\frac{n(n-1)(n-2)}{6}$ asymptotically equivalent. If you back up a bit from the time where the link starts, you'll see (actually, hear) the algebra spelled out.