Not sure if I should ask this on CS or physics SE, but here goes.
I’m reading on quantum computing, and one thing that keeps confusing me is the following basic fact about QM:
Say we have a qbit A, and a qbit B, then two possible quantum states for $A$ are:
$$|+\rangle=\frac {|0\rangle + |1\rangle}{\sqrt 2}$$
$$\frac {|00\rangle + |11\rangle}{\sqrt 2}$$
In the first case, the qbit $A$ is in a quantum superposition between $0$ and $1$. In the second case, the qbits $A$ and $B$ are ALSO in a quantum superposition, but they are now entangled. I understand that there is a difference between these states, in the sense that the second is an entangled state, whereas the first one is not.
However, what I don’t understand, is why, solely from the perspective of $A$, there is a difference between these states. I read that in the second, entangled state, $A$ (taken as an individual qbit) is not in a superposition state, but in a mixed state. I know that this is a very important basic fact about QM but I still don’t really get it.
why is it not possible for $A$ to be both in an entangled state, AND in a superposition “with itself” (i.e. a pure state, rather than a mixed state). I.e. by what principle of quantum mechanics do we know this, and from what does this principle follow?
Is there an intuition behind this? I.e. how would quantum mechanics no longer make sense if it weren’t the case.