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I have already read PAC learning of axis-aligned rectangles and understand every other part of the example.

From Foundations of Machine Learning by Mohri, 2nd ed., p. 13 (book) or p. 30 (PDF), I am struggling to understand the following sentence of Example 2.4, which is apparently the result of a contrapositive argument:

... if $R(\text{R}_S) > \epsilon$, then $\text{R}_S$ must miss at least one of the regions $r_i$, $i \in [4]$.

i.e., $i = 1, 2, 3, 4$. Could someone please explain why this is the case?

The way I see it is this: given $\epsilon > 0$, if $R(\text{R}_S) > \epsilon$, then $\mathbb{P}_{x \sim D}(\text{R}\setminus \text{R}_S) > \epsilon$. We also know from this stage of the proof that $\mathbb{P}_{x \sim D}(\text{R}) > \epsilon$ as well. Beyond this, I'm not sure how the sentence above is reached.

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  • $\begingroup$ Welcome to finally posting to COMPUTERSCIENCE @SE. I consider it a pity that every other is ambiguous (every 2nd one/every one but). $\endgroup$
    – greybeard
    Commented Aug 11, 2020 at 2:39

1 Answer 1

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Let $R_S, R_T$ denote the sample rectangle (smallest consistent rectangle) and the target rectangle correspondingly. Since $R_S\subseteq R_T$, $R(R_S)\le \mu\left(R_T\setminus R_S\right)$. The intuition behind taking strips of mass $\epsilon$ around the edges of $R_T$ is that you want to satisfy two conditions:

  1. The strips, $r_1,...,r_4$ should have large enough mass so that with high probability $m(\epsilon)$ samples do not miss them (this would follow from a simple bound for a geometric random variable).

  2. The strips should have small enough mass, so that if all were seen by the samples, then $R_T\setminus R_S\subseteq \bigcup\limits_i r_i$, where the latter union has small probability thus bounding $R(R_S)$.

Your question is settled by the geometric argument in the second point. If all strips were seen by the samples, then we can only err on points in the strips.

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  • $\begingroup$ Forgive me if this is obvious, but why is $R(R_S) \leq \mu(R_T \setminus R_S)$? I thought they would always be equal since $R(R_S)$ is the probability that $R_T$ and $R_S$ do not yield the same output in $\{0, 1\}$, which would correspond to the probability mass in $R_T \setminus R_S$. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 10, 2020 at 13:23
  • $\begingroup$ They are indeed equal (we just don't really care about lower bounds in this context). $\endgroup$
    – Ariel
    Commented Aug 10, 2020 at 13:32
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for clarifying. I recognize your answer here, as it's what I did for the case when all of the strips $r_j$ contained a sample point. So let's suppose that at least one $r_j$ does not contain a sample point. We have $R(R_S) = \mathbb{P}(R_T \setminus R_S) > \epsilon$. I'm not seeing how the claim I seek follows from the second point in your answer, since your second point assumes that all of the strips $r_j$ contains a sample point. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 10, 2020 at 14:24
  • $\begingroup$ The claim is that if all strips are seen, then the error is small (this is 2). The contrapositive of this is that if the error is large, then at least one strip was missed. $\endgroup$
    – Ariel
    Commented Aug 10, 2020 at 14:46
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for this! I figured it was something like that, but it was hard for me to sort out what the antecedent and consequent were. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 10, 2020 at 15:02

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