Let $\displaystyle S_{1} ,S_{2} \subseteq \{0,1\}^{*}$, we say $\displaystyle x\in S_{1}°S_{2}$ if it's of the form $\displaystyle x=x_{1} x_{2} ...x_{n}$, for $\displaystyle n$ even, such that:
$\displaystyle x_{i} \in \{0,1\}^{*}$
$\displaystyle x_{1} x_{3} ...x_{n-1} \in S_{1}$
$\displaystyle x_{2} x_{4} ...x_{n} \in S_{2}$
Prove or disprove: if $\displaystyle S_{1} ,S_{2} \in NP$, then $\displaystyle S_{1}°S_{2} \in NP$
I have a feeling it is a proof, simply because I wouldn't know how to disprove it. I know it should come down to finding a certificate $\displaystyle c$ such that $\displaystyle V( x,c) =1$ if'f $\displaystyle x\in S_{1}°S_{2}$, based on the certificates of $\displaystyle S_{1} ,S_{2}$.
The thing is I don't really know what the division of the word $\displaystyle x$ is. So how can I check if part of the word is in $\displaystyle S_{1}$ and the other in $\displaystyle S_{2}$? I could maybe define the $\displaystyle c$ in this way, that it gives you the division, but I don't really know how to define it properly.
Any help?
Keep in mind that's the first time for me studying this subject