I have a converter between two context-free grammars which are both describing the same language but one uses infixes other than prefixes, has different symbols and sometimes switches order of nonterminals. It's a converter in a sense that it takes an expression in one grammar and outputs its equivalent counterpart in the other grammar and vice versa. All the rules for the translation are symmetrical.
I'd like to prove (at least beyond reasonable doubt) that my two-way converter works. Would it be sufficient to generate a lot of random expressions and show that when we put them through in both ways, the result is the same? I can't really decide what that would actually 'prove', if anything.