Here is the proof of a∗ being star-free:
$\Sigma* = \bar{\emptyset} $
$ A∗= \overline{Σ∗(Σ∖A)Σ∗} $
Would this be a proof for $a * b$? : $ A∗B= \overline{Σ∗(Σ∖A)Σ∗(Σ∖B)} $
For $(A * B )*$ it seems more complicated if not impossible, but is that proofable?