The $P$ vs $BPP$ question is often explained as such: if there exists a "strong enough" PRNG, we can use it to derandomize any randomized algorithm.
However, I don't get how this, let's call it "$PRNG = RNG$" idea implies $P = BPP$ at all. In fact, $P = BPP$ seems like it would be much, much harder to prove!
The main problem is that algorithms in $BPP$ are only required to be correct, let's say, 51% of the time. So, if we use some deterministic PRNG, we would thus expect it to be correct on 51% of instances. We can run the algorithm multiple times and take the majority result to get this number up to 75%, or 99% or whatever we want. But doing so won't bring it to exactly 100%.
Put another way, this would really entail that "$BPP \subset P_{\text{only correct for 51%/75%/99%/etc of instances}}$." But to qualify for $P$, it needs to give the correct answer every single time, for all instances, with no possible chance of failure at all. That is a much, much higher bar!
In general, while I don't have any problems believing "$BPP \subset P_{\text{only correct for 51%/75%/99%/etc of instances}}$", I don't get how you are supposed to go the last mile and actually get it all the way to 100%.
The idea is apparently this: we can run the algorithm on every possible random bitstring it could possibly use and take the majority result. This takes exponential time. But it is conjectured that we can get the same correct result every single time by using a special PRNG and just brute forcing all the random seeds instead.
But again: we need a 100% success rate! If we think of the set of "all possible PRNG outputs" as a "sample" of "all possible bitstrings," we need to somehow magically guarantee it is never an "outlier" for any instance, ever. How can we do that?