Let $X_*^L$ be the set of all deterministic Turing machines $M$ which decide the language $L$ and have the property:
$\forall x,y \in \Sigma^*: t_M(xy) \ge t_M(x) + t_M(y)$ (**)
where $t_M(w)$ is the time of $M$ on input $w$.
Define for all $x,y\in \Sigma^*$:
$d(x,y) := \max_{M \in X_*^L} \frac{|t_M(x) - t_M(y)|}{t_M(xy)+t_M(yx)}$
Then, because of (**) we have $t_M(yx) + t_M(xy) \ge 2(t_M(x)+t_M(y))$ from which it follows that: $\frac{|t_M(x) - t_M(y)|}{t_M(xy) + t_M(yx)} \le 1/2 \frac{|t_M(x)-t_M(y)|}{t_M(x) + t_M(y)} \le 1/2 \frac{ |t_M(x)| + |t_M(y)|}{t_M(x) + t_M(y)} = \frac{1}{2}$ Hence we get $d(x,y) \le 1/2$.
My question is this:
Does $d(x,y) = 0$ which is equivalent to $\forall M \in X_*^L: t_M(x) = t_M(y)$ imply that $x = y$?
The reason for asking this question, is that I am trying to define a metric on strings which has "something to do with the time-complexity of Turing machines". If we define $d(x,y) = \max_{M \in X^L} |t_M(x) - t_M(y)|$ (where the maximum is taken over all machines which decide $L$.). Then I can show, that $d(x,y) = 0$ implies $x = y$. But the problem with this definition, is that $d(x,y)$ can be $\infty$. Or am I wrong with this?