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  • I would like to find all Euler PATHs in a directed graph.
  • Counting (instead of finding) all the Euler PATHs is sufficient.
  • Circuits are not good for me, only Paths.

I am doing a problem, that I have derived to a point, where knowing the number of paths fast would help. Currently, I have written (in c++) a recursive function that finds all of them, but it complexity grows quickly, so my algorithm gets slow fast. My algorithm is ~O(2^n). I would like a faster one for counting, if possible.

I have researched the topic, but I can only find proofs (for being NP complete, or polynomial) and algorithms for Euler Circuits in directed and undirected graphs. But again, I am looking for Euler Paths in directed graphs.

My graphs have only two nodes, but a lot of edges, that should be touched only once, like in an Euler Path.

So in summary:

  1. Euler Path.
  2. Directed Graph.
  3. Only two nodes.
  4. High edge count.
  5. Edge costs are the same.

Here is an image to illustrate a possible set up.

enter image description here

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  • $\begingroup$ This seems like, at worst, a straight-forward dynamic programming exercise. ​ Are you hoping to parallelize it or use less memory? ​ ​ ​ ​ $\endgroup$
    – user12859
    Commented Jan 30, 2016 at 8:11
  • $\begingroup$ For general graphs and Eulerian circuits this is #P-complete: cdam.lse.ac.uk/Reports/Files/cdam-2004-12.pdf. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 30, 2016 at 8:22

1 Answer 1

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You can actually come up with a formula for this. Let $\ell_0,\ell_1$ be the number of self-loops at $0,1$, and let $e_{01},e_{10}$ be the edges from $0$ to $1$ and in the other direction. We must have $|e_{01}-e_{10}| \leq 1$. If $e_{01} = e_{10}+1$ then the path must start at $0$; if $e_{10} = e_{01}+1$ then it must start at $1$; if $e_{01} = e_{10}$ then both are possible. We will count paths starting at $0$.

Given an Eulerian path starting at $0$, we can write it as $$ L_0 E_1 L_1 E_2 \cdots E_m L_m, $$ where $L_0,L_2,\ldots$ are collections of self-loops at $0$, $L_1,L_3,\ldots$ are collections of self-loops at $1$, $E_1,E_3,\ldots$ are $0\to 1$ edges, and $E_2,E_4,\ldots$ are $1\to 0$ edges. We can decompose this path into three components: $$ E_1 E_2 \ldots E_m \\ L_0 L_2 \ldots \\ L_1 L_3 \ldots $$ We can choose the first component in $e_{01}! e_{10}!$ ways, the second component in $\ell_0!$ ways, and the third component is $\ell_1!$ ways. It remains to choose a way of partitioning the latter two strings into their components. In order to count this, assume that $m$ is even (the case $m$ odd is very similar) and divide the original path differently: $$ L_0 E_1 L_2 E_3 L_4 \ldots E_{m-1} L_m \\ L_1 E_2 L_3 E_4 L_5 \ldots E_{m-2} L_{m-1} E_m $$ The first line contains $m/2$ "breakpoints" out of $\ell_0 + m/2$ symbols in total, so the number of ways of breaking $L_0L_2\ldots L_m$ into its $m/2+1$ parts is $\binom{\ell_0+m/2}{m/2}$. The computation is similar for the second line, once we remove the $E_m$ which must appear at the end; we get $\binom{\ell_1+m/2-1}{m/2-1}$.

I'll leave you the task of bringing everything together to one formula.

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  • $\begingroup$ Could you elaborate more on the "It remains to choose the positions of the edges" part? $\endgroup$
    – Snowman
    Commented Jan 30, 2016 at 13:04
  • $\begingroup$ If you prefer, choose instead the lengths of the $L_i$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 30, 2016 at 13:06
  • $\begingroup$ Alternatively, choose the decomposition of $L_0L_2\ldots$ (a permutation) to $L_0,L_2,\ldots$ (strings partitioning the permutation). $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 30, 2016 at 13:15
  • $\begingroup$ I understand the permutation part. The two position formulas are difficult to understand for me. I would like to get a bit more details about them, if possible. Thank you for you quick replies, and detailed answer, it already helps a lot. $\endgroup$
    – Snowman
    Commented Jan 30, 2016 at 13:18
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    $\begingroup$ Ok, I rewrote the explanation. I still encourage you to enumerate a few small examples by hand, and see how it compares to the description in the answer. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 30, 2016 at 13:49

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