I'm having a very hard time understanding what's what.
$$L_{1}\leq_{p}L_{2}$$
If $L_2$ is stated to be in $\textbf{NP}$, is it necessarily true that $L_1$ is $\textbf{NP}$-Complete? I need to show the following for an assignment, but I'm having a dispute with a fellow student because he claims that I can't claim that $L_1$ is $\textbf{NP}$-Complete...
Suppose that $L_1\leq_p L_2\leq_p L_3$. Also suppose that $L_3$ is in $\textbf{NP}$. Explain how to solve $L_1$ deterministically in exponential time.
I say (and I could be wrong - and that's a strong possiblity since I have very little understanding of this material) that since $L_3$ is in $\textbf{NP}$, $L_2$ also has to be in $\textbf{NP}$, and so therefore $L_1$ has to be in $\textbf{NP}$. And if that's the case, then $L_1$ can easily be converted to a deterministic algorithm through a breadth first search through the non-deterministic computation tree. Is there something I'm missing?